one can further prove that the sphere S**n−1 can be partitioned into as many pieces as there are real numbers (that is, pieces)
Would the answer to OP be some argument along the lines of defining the surface area of the ball as the sum of the partitioned balls surface areas then?
Would the answer to OP be some argument along the lines of defining the surface area of the ball as the sum of the partitioned balls surface areas then?
IDK what OP is even going on about. This just seemed relevant.