• bigfish@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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    2 months ago

    Back from this rabbit hole and brought gifts:

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nigger

    It’s been in use since the 16th century by English speakers. Basically it was just an anglicization of the Spanish or Portuguese negro. At the time it was seen as neutral by white folk, but it’s also always been tied to slavery, so definitely not neutral from the pov of the slaves.

    So did its use imply a power imbalance? Yes. Did the white folk who used it early on know? Maybe…?

    I guess it’s similar to using “Indian” to describe New World Native peoples. It’s always been tied to expansionism and genocide, but from the pov of the oppressor that connotation isn’t readily recognized.

    • Don_Dickle@lemmy.worldOP
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      2 months ago

      It just kind of seems wierd out of all the word to choose out of Latin they chose this. Like why didn’t they pick something like Peddico?

      • IronBird@lemmy.world
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        2 months ago

        just say it outloud, “let’s lynch some peddico’s”…sounds ridiculous. would never catch on

      • Uruanna@lemmy.world
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        2 months ago

        Language doesn’t come up from planned academic consensus, it comes from common use. If there were more people using the Spanish then French word negro because that’s the cultural environment these people came from and where they used it, and the accent gradually changed the word to something more unique, then that’s what the new word is. Wikipedia says that process took 200 years. They ended with that word and not another word because they were not using that other word before, simple as.