So Latin spread pretty well across Europe, being the basis of almost every language there, but how come it didn’t take as strong a hold in the Middle East? It’s not as if the Romans were never there, and they lingered there far longer than they did in Europe. Was it just a matter of a stronger preexisting culture, or did the Arabs have something to do with it? What happened here?

  • Dr. Bob@lemmy.ca
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    2 days ago

    Any of us can ask AI and throw slop into a conversation. If you don’t have anything substantive to add maybe read and learn.